Dear sir,
X has purchased property and given that property to both sons A And B with out any partition document and X has died before 1983

Now one of the grand son has taken that property by A and B with separate document
A document one with his all family members included and taken gift deed separately who is mr C

B document one with is family members included and taken gift deed seperately of same person. Who is Mr C Which was not done partition by A and B due to document was before 1983.
Pls clarify is it valid document


A and B and their family members can transfer the property by separate document even when there is no partition. It all depends on the document and its terms and condition. Consult with an expert local advocate. 



Legal heirs are entitle to share the properties among them


X Document 1947 is directly transferred with gift deed to C who is grand grand son by including all family members from A and B separately from A one document and from B one document separately , there is no document between X (father) and A and B (sons) because he died and death is also not available due to it is long long back 1950 year and same transferred to C grand grand son with A and B no partition 


There is only one document transaction between X and C pls clarify






Confusing facts.

It is better to consult and engage a local prudent lawyer for appreciation of facts/ documents, professional advise and necessary proceeding.

Retired Manager

The facts are very confusing and not following a timeline. Post the details clearly and cogently which others can understand.


X orally divided the shares and he died in 1950

2 sons A and B which was orally divided shares transferred to grand son by gift deed including family members Of(  A) with one document which was orally shared to (A) and another (B)shared orally divided  with one document transferred by GIft deed to grand son included B family members is it valid

Retired employee.

Hindu partition depends on several facts of possession, enjoyment and treatment and it is absolutely impossible to guide basing on one side story.   As advised, only a local advocate can offer and guidance looking into documented facts and possession records.

Retired Manager

In your clarification, you are mentioning "orally" several times. What exactly that orally means.


Originally X whose property it was orally only shared it between his Sons A and B. Now A and B together gave the property to Grandson through a Gift Deed. It is better all legal heirs to X sign such Gift Deed including other grand children if any and any other possible claimants.  Please contact a local Lawyer for assistance in drafting the Gift Deed based on the original documents etc and get the same Registered duly signed by all legal heirs/claimants.


X has been died with out dividing the property to his sons since 1950 and death certificate will not come. As per Hinduism property belongs to both sons A and B 

Orally means with X Document directly transferred to grand grand son  by gift deed by A and B with understandings and involved in gift deed with (A)separate involving (A) family members  and B with another gift deed by involving (B) family members





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