My Father have passed away leaving a will that he wrote in 1979 bequeathing al moveable and immovable property in the name of my mother. There is no specific mention of any property or finances but a general statement Bequeathing all property.
During the process of transferring the property in her name, the estate official responsible for the transfer has raised an objection saying that the will was written in 1979 but the property was bought in 1999 and hence is not covered under the will.
I find this absurd as the will becomes active on the date of death and should therefore include everything as on that date.
Is there any merit in the officials objection or can i counter him on this ?
Any cititations or links to supporting information will be greatly appreciated.