I just had a simple question. It has happened the third time last month that the judge was on a vacation on the day of our hearing. Our lawyer had called us just one day before the date of hearing and said we should come for the hearing ( in another city) - we went there just to know that the judge in our case is on vacation again.
So the question is, doesn't a judge need to give any 3 day or even a day's notice before going on a vacation? Can he take a leave without informing anyone. And if he does have to inform well in advance, can't the lawyers know about that beforehand (so that at least we don't have to travel to different cities wasting a lot of money)?
Also, the other party has benefits by stretching the case as long as possible, because they know that they're not going to win. So (it might be a stupid question), is it possible that they are doing something to influence the judge to go on vacation each time?