Hi. I am a divorcee (4 years since divorce) from my ex-wife.
As part of the divorce settlement, i agreed to transfer our 50-50 purchased and jointly owned property to her.
Since the loan is only now completing, is it possible to avoid tax charges/capital gains tax on the sale to her?
Can we refer to the original divorce agreement (where it states I will transfer to her) to avoid tax?
Thanks in advance!
Vikram