When my father-in-law died, he left no will. My wife and her brother were the two natural heirs to his property. The two of them drew up a partition deed dividing the assets of the deceased with approximate values of the immovable assets divided as per the then succession law in force at that time. Over a period of years almost all the assets have been sold and converted into shares and FDs. These have grown over several decades into considerable monetary assets. My wife has no independent income other than from these monetary assets. If she writes a will allocating some of these assets to persons other than her natural heirs, can it be disputed by her natural heirs, that it was not permissible as the assets have grown out of her inherited property?
Since is self sufficient to give ,sell or transfer her share in any's name. As the property is owned now by conversion.She can make will and property shall be divided only acoding to that. But if you have apprihensions then better to make a gift deed . Otherwise non can challenge her will . Just make a will deed and register that before the registrar court. Proceed don't worry.
1. Property received by Wife, via a registered Partition Deed, would be classified as "Self-Acquired property" (under the Transfer of Property Act) and confers on her "absolute Title-Ownership" of the deceased's property, for futuristic purpose of Sale /Gift/ Lease /Mortgage /Donate /Whatever ....
2. By virtue of the above, Wife is the solely and legally entitled to Will /Sale /Gift/ Lease /Mortgage /Donate /Whatever .... to ANYBODY, without any legal reference to other her legal heirs and nobody shall have any right to stake claim on her "self acquired property".