Thank you very much Mr.Vishweshwar Rao. Now I understand that
1. If ancestral property sold before 2005, then I can't claim any rights.
2. After 2005, even though ancestral property changed to my brother's name (before 2004), I can still claim my share.
Am I correct sir?
If I can prove that my brothers sold the ancestral property before 2005 and invested in another land, can I able to claim some share in that new land (by providing ample amount of evidence that ancestral property converted into new land) ?