as u know that explanation appended with section 498a defines cruelty . first part tell when wilfull conduct would constitute cruelty and other part says harrasment in relation to demand of dowry is cruelty. as my perception both parts are independent of each other and in while attracting first part there is no need to prove any role of dowry demand but to attract second part there is need to prove dowry demand.
in other words by virtue of first part i want to say that without any dowry demand there can be cruelty under section 498a.
my confusion is here that after reading some sc ( supreme court of india) judgment it appears to me sc saysthat there cannot me any offence under section 498a until there is act of dowary demand. please see the judgment.
please clarify my doubt..