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Keshrimal Sankliya   17 March 2022

why there are some Acts which does not contain

why there are some Acts which does not contain the word Indian
like RTI act 2005, the sales of goods act 1930 ??


 2 Replies

ankush agarwal (Advocate)     17 March 2022

all these are Indian law. earlier laws were made by British. they made law for all there colonies. India was one of there colony so they put Indian word with all the laws made for indian colony. there is mo need to put Indian word before all laws.

Palak batra   18 March 2022

Dear Querist,


Earlier laws were made by Britishers for all their colonies hence were not purely Indian laws. For example sales of goods act 1979 is a United Kingdom Parliament Act that governs English contract law and UK consumer law with regard to goods sold and purchased. The Act consolidated the original Sale of goods Law 1893 and the succeeding statutes, which in essence codified and reinforced the law. Many small constitutional amendments and additions to the 1979 Act have been made since 1979. It was repealed by the Consumer Protection Act 2015, on 1 October 2015, for certain aspects of consumer contracts but still forms the primary regulation underpinning transactions covering the sale or purchasing of products from company to firm.




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