If a law/ordinance made by the parliament/president is ultra vires at the time of making of that particlur law/ordinance. But, subsequently the power of making that law is given through an amendment then would that law stand valid?
Thank you.
sachin (Student) 07 June 2013
If a law/ordinance made by the parliament/president is ultra vires at the time of making of that particlur law/ordinance. But, subsequently the power of making that law is given through an amendment then would that law stand valid?
Thank you.
Rahul Kapoor (Legal Enthusiast) 07 June 2013
it depends on the language and intention of legislature as to whether that particular law will also apply restropectively or not.
sachin (Student) 08 June 2013
Is there any case law on this point?
Has anything like this happened before?
Rahul Kapoor (Legal Enthusiast) 08 June 2013
i cannot point out a particular case law.
constitutional bench of SC pointed out in many case laws.
Rahul Kapoor (Legal Enthusiast) 08 June 2013
you should read V K Shukla for the subject of constitutional law
sachin (Student) 08 June 2013
Under which topic/Article of the Constitution would fall this type of situation?
Thank you.
kriti agrawal (self) 12 June 2013
hi,
i m sending you a site https://www.niticentral.com/2013/04/24/there-are-limits-to-constitutional-amendments-70153.html which may help you in this regard.
kriti
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