It would be grateful if any one civil expertize can give some explanation on the below dispute
My grandfather(died) had two wives :
1 wife (died) - had 2 daughters - married before 1989
2 wife(died) - had 3 daughters - 1 son - everyone married before 1989
on 1989 - May - 2nd wife's only son in the entire family somehow convienced the grandfather and get the will of partition documents of all the properties infavour of him (after hearing the amentment act of 1989)
After 1 year grandfather passed away.
All the 5 married daughters - doesn't have any rights to these ancestral properties since they married before 1989 ?
He didn't given any property rights to their 1st wife daughters too. Now the only 1 son(2nd wifes son) enjoying all the properties.