Sir,
Please let me know that when a father (who has a self acquired property) gives an advertisement of disowning his son and daughter-in-law in a local newspaper without telling them or giving any legal notice. And still after giving that notice, he lived with his wife, the said son, daughter-in-law and grandson without telling them anything about it.
After 4-5 years of giving this notice, the father dies (please be noted that he was staying with his son and his family till the last breath but never mentioned that he had disowned him 5 years back) testate and gives all legal rights to the mother (that means ownership of property and movable assets) if he predeceases his wife which is the case.
Now the question is can the mother give any share to her son (who was disowned by the father) from this property (movable and immovable)??
And if the mother passes away intestate then does that son have any legal right to stake claim in the said property??