balasubramanyam (practice) 09 August 2019
kavksatyanarayana (subregistrar/supdt.(retired)) 09 August 2019
Already replied in the same forum.
G.L.N. Prasad (Retired employee.) 10 August 2019
Avoid posting same issue posting again and again by changing the titles, as it is against the discipline of the forum.
Hemant Agarwal (ha21@rediffmail.com Mumbai : 9820174108) 09 October 2019
1. IF "after" demise of "A" the property has been transferred to "B" (who now is the absolute Title-Owner) THEN "only" "B" is entitled to mortgage the property and "C" shall have no role, whatsoever, to take loan or sign mortgage documents. Signatures of both would also not be allowed by the lending Bank /NBFC. Further both signatures on mortgage would mean scores of legal disputes /claims in future.
Keep Smiling .... Hemant Agarwal
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G.L.N. Prasad (Retired employee.) 09 October 2019
The presumption as full details were not stated is that A: Husband has wirtten a will giving rights of enjoyment to his wife B, and might have stated in the will that C (Child) would inherit the property after the death of B (mother). IN cases like these the wife (mother)'s right is for enjoyment only in general.