I sold my flat in June 2013 in Nashik, Maharashtra. At that time the issue of VAT was pending in Supreme court. My previous agreement with the builder contained the clause of VAT; however VAT had not been paid because it was not applicable in June (when I sold my Flat) due to 1) Pending VAT case in Supreme Court 2) Builder had not completed the pending work in common areas of the society as promised. Society gave me NOC to sell the flat and the bank (which gave loan to the new buyer) did not ask anything regarding VAT. My sale agreement with the new owner is silent on VAT issue. 2 months after the sale deed was completed in June, Supreme court has finally made VAT compulsory. Whose liability is it to pay the VAT amount to the builder - mine or the new owner?
