My grandfather had about 20 acres of agricultural land. After my grandfather’s demise 32 years ago, the land was divided into 3 parts among my father and his 2 younger brothers through oral partition. The house (in which they lived for the last 50 years) which was situated in one of the parts of the divided land was also partitioned into 3 parts through oral partition. The same was also documented in the presence of witnesses. However, the partitioned house needed to be made non-agricultural in due course of time, as per the text in the partition document, however this was not done by any of the siblings or my father and they continued to live in or use the partitioned houses. One of the younger brothers of my father expired 25 years ago. Now, my cousin (son of my father’s younger brother) claims that the entire house belongs to him as it is situated on the piece of the land which was allotted to his father. Is this claim valid?, considering the fact that the house was also partitioned into 3 parts among three brothers? Request your legal opinion.