Hi,
It would be of great help if somebody could avice me about my confusion.
My husband was given his fathers property which was in his mothers name. the deed is sale deed document. Now after my inlaws death my husbands borther claims share in this property. my father in laww has clearly said that the b rother has no claim over this property but still he insists to us that he should have a portion. the borther threaten us that he wwould file a case saying my mother in laww that is his mother was mentally not fit and wwould claim for share in the property. is that possible. my mother in laww was a depression patient but she wwas in no medication or under any treatment. still is it possible to calim that my motherinlaw was insane and so this document is invalid. the document everything was prepared by my fatherinlaw, my motherinlaw just signed thats all.
thanks
