Contracts

Querist : Anonymous (Querist) 26 January 2012 This query is : Resolved
why would an uk based country in a contract with an company based in india would subject the contract to indian laws and at the same time subject the disputes arising out of the contract to the jurisdiction of english courts?

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Sudhir Kumar, Advocate (Expert) 26 January 2012
ask that company.

V R SHROFF (Expert) 26 January 2012
Their Choice. whatever fvr them

Devajyoti Barman (Expert) 26 January 2012
The parties to the agreement can agree to subject themselves to jurisdiction of particular country or exclude the jurisdiction of particular country for which specific erms in the agreement needs to incorporated.

Shailesh Kr. Shah (Expert) 26 January 2012
Dear Author,

you have asked same query in different ways at least 5 times, but you never show contents of contract? please come once with whole facts.

It seems that you have not satisfied from previous replies of experts due to non-producing whole facts.

Raj Kumar Makkad (Expert) 26 January 2012
It depends upon the contract to be executed between the parties to the contract, however, it is confirmed that it can be got done.