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javed ahmed (fdddf)     08 January 2012

Property

A,B and C are the owners of an undivided property.the property is not partioned.now "A" wants to sell his portion to D.can he do so?does he need to take consent of B and C before the transfer?the deed of sale nowhere stipulates anything like that one needs to take consent from the rest before making transfer.AN EARLY REPLY WILL BE HIGHLY APPRECIATED.

REGARDS,

JAVED



Learning

 1 Replies

H. S. Thukral (Lawyer)     08 January 2012

undivided share in immovable property can be sold but the possession of the property can be only on its partition.


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