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javed ahmed (fdddf)     08 January 2012

Property

A,B and C are the owners of an undivided property.the property is not partioned.now "A" wants to sell his portion to D.can he do so?does he need to take consent of B and C before the transfer?the deed of sale nowhere stipulates anything like that one needs to take consent from the rest before making transfer.AN EARLY REPLY WILL BE HIGHLY APPRECIATED.

REGARDS,

JAVED



 1 Replies

H. S. Thukral (Lawyer)     08 January 2012

undivided share in immovable property can be sold but the possession of the property can be only on its partition.


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