Will the right of redemption exist even after the sale of the mortgaged property. Could anyone provide case laws
How is it possible?
'R' Mortgages property to 'E':
After some time
'R' sells the property to 'B'-------Possible
Now Sale by "R" to 'B' is subject to Mortgage
Hence redemption by 'B' from 'E' --Possible and right is transferred by 'R' to 'B' by Sale.
Right of redemption exists but with purchaser of property.
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