Let us say that A buys a property which was under Govt. proceedings for forfeiture (but purchase was before the forfeiture though the seller's property was under orders of freezing and notice of forfeiture unknown to A). A few years after the purchase, the Govt. Dept. comes to take possession due to subsequent orders for forfeiture. A had to go Court to assert his rights and the Court grants the stay. In the meantime, before the hearings could be completed, if 12 years have passed by since his purchase, whether A becomes automatically the owner by virtue of his possession? Pl clarify.
