Transfer of property
RAVI SINGH
(Querist) 26 February 2015
This query is : Resolved
If a transfer of property takes place between two parties in a form of registered deed. Then can a third party who does not have any relation with the above two party nor have played any role in the transferring process, can put an objection on the deed before a court?
Advocate M.Bhadra
(Expert) 26 February 2015
To give proper advise detailed facts needed.If he has no title, right and interest in the property in question then his objection will not stand in the court.
Guest
(Expert) 26 February 2015
Academic query. Explain your own problem, if you really have any.
R.K Nanda
(Expert) 27 February 2015
yes, he can if adversely effected.
RAVI SINGH
(Querist) 27 February 2015
But how can be the registry be affected if the person who is putting the objection does not have any relation to the registry deed nor to any parties?
malipeddi jaggarao
(Expert) 27 February 2015
Mr.Ravi Singh - you have posted two queries - One you say A has sold you his self-acquired property and A's son is rising objection through court of law. In this query, you say a different story. Whether it is academic query or real problem? If it is real problem and if both the queries are pertaining to same matter, if you have the self-acquired property of A, his son cannot rise any objection - ofcourse, you cannot stop him to rise it, you can successfully avert it. To prove it is self-acquired property of A, you should have link document i.e., the sale deed in favour of A (while A acquired the property) and if A's son file a case, you fight it back.
RAVI SINGH
(Querist) 27 February 2015
Sir the two queries are different.
In the above query I have stated that If I buyed a land from a person in form of registry and then a person rises and puts an objection to cancel the deed though his name is no where mention in the property nor he does have any relation to seller.
He has objected stating that he too have his share in the land but does not have any proof.
So is his objection valid?
Dr J C Vashista
(Expert) 28 February 2015
1. I agree with expert Mr. Malipeddi Jaggarao and other experts, the author has rightly been caught posting same query in two different forms.
2. It is a pure academic and hypothetical query.
3. Self-acquired property can be disposed off by the titleholder (owner) since his son is without any right, claim, interest or title. If the son of vendor puts some objection, which you cannot stop but can contest, prove and get it dismissed. Any objection raised will not stand.
Guest
(Expert) 28 February 2015
Which are two different queries and how you can expect single common solution for two different queries/ problems?
About your latest post, you may ask the objecting person to file a suit in the court of law to prove his claim.
T. Kalaiselvan, Advocate
(Expert) 02 March 2015
How did the son object to the sale deed? through a civil suit or how?, if it is through suit, you can challenge his claim based on the evidences in your side.
