I have some doubts with regards to what happened with my aunt recently.
Basically, she had a house on Paghadi, and legally rent position and got herself a proper house later on (legal owner). She therefore did not use it. Hence the flat used to be empty. These are the questions in this context:
1. Can a flat be vacated on the basis of non-occupancy of tenants for an extended period of time? If yes, what is the logic behind this? Is the tenant not paying the amount of money that the land-owner would get otherwise? What is his business with checking as to whether it is occupied or not?
2. If the first one is true, does the occupant have to be from the family of the registered tenant? Why cannot an outsider or employee fulfill the obligation of occupation? Occupation is occupation.
3. Legally speaking, can a Paghadi flat be seen in the very same light as an actually rented flat?
4. Are the same rent receipts given out to the user of the Paghadi as well as actual rent system?
