Compromise agreement

J. Raj george (Querist) 24 May 2015 This query is : Resolved
Sirs,
A man got a sale deed by undue influence from my mother. She immediately sent a lawyer notice that you got sale deed by fraud instead of Mortgage deed.The impugned buyer then influenced our lawyer by money and threatened my mother and again obtained another agreement to the effect that he need not reply the Notice and the deed previuosly executed is sale deed only and that I gave the notice out of some oral dispute.

Now The case has been filed.
Now I want to know whether
1. the subsequent agreement is valid and
2. the previous sale deed is vaild without the subsequent agreement.
3. In the case of Karnailsigh & Others Vs. Dalip Kaur & ors -Punjab And Haryana high Court in 1995 ( Lawmirror/File No. 8198 )
it has been held "'whenever a transaction entered at the behest of lawyer is assailed by a litigant, a burden is cast upon the persion taking advantage under the transaction to show that the transaction was entered into was free from fraud,undueinfluence and to such agreement the party had freely consented after understanding the implication." - CPC,Order 23 Rule 3-A,sec 101 of Evidence Act. Hence whether the above case law is applicable to the above agreement in our favour
4. Whether the above agreement is a compromise agreement under Civil Proceedure code.
Whether the agreement is nullified the sale deed is also automatically void.

Please clarify me sir for further proceedings.

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Devajyoti Barman (Expert) 25 May 2015
without seeing the deeds/agreements it is difficult to advise.

T. Kalaiselvan, Advocate (Expert) 28 May 2015
As rightly observed by above expert, it will not be possible to give a proper opinion without seeing the actual papers/documents/agreement copies hence you may consult another lawyer for a second opinion in the local if you are not satisfied with your lawyer's opinion.