VIJAYNARAYAN (FREELANCE EDU CONSULTANT) 02 July 2013
my present residential property purchased in 1998 has the signature of my wife , "ONLY " , as the, " purchaser" , even though the preamble states both , "ME & my Wife " , as , 'Purchasers'. This small lapse ? I have noticed only now. Is the Title Deed legally complete ? or is anything amendment needs to be done & if so what needs to be done
Mohammed Ameenuddin (Sr. Legal Manager) 02 July 2013
Get this correction done with concerned sub registrar office.
2BHelpfull (Other) 02 July 2013
make the correction through registering rectification deed.
VIJAYNARAYAN (FREELANCE EDU CONSULTANT) 03 July 2013
Dear Mr. Mohammed Ameenuddin & 2BHelpful
Thanks for the response. A xerox copy of the Title Deeds and Rectification Deed on Rs.100/- stamp paper will be sufficient ?
Mohammed Ameenuddin (Sr. Legal Manager) 03 July 2013
Yes, sufficient
VIJAYNARAYAN (FREELANCE EDU CONSULTANT) 03 July 2013
thanks again.
the following logic / conscquence arises :
in this case the , ' rectification deed ' , is really required only for the purposes of making the the Title Deed , " Legally Complete ". And again if we are not selling the property then this lapse hardly matters. However the rectification is reqd only fior the purposes of selling / transfer?
Mohammed Ameenuddin (Sr. Legal Manager) 03 July 2013
Not only selling/transfer matters, to have the legal stand of the document, you need to have the document executed correctly.
VIJAYNARAYAN (FREELANCE EDU CONSULTANT) 04 July 2013
DEar All Thanks for the clarity & advise
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