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Tajobsindia (Senior Partner )     16 February 2011

Flip view After divorce should property rights be given?

Common Indian spouse view:


In
India marriage system is basically "hypergamic" in India, with women marrying up into slightly better-off families. Such a system stimulates efforts by potential brides and their family to invest large resources (such as dowry) to marry into families further up the socio-economic or status ladder. This has also been proven in the UNPF report.


Hypergamy always puts elite women and destitute men at the greatest risk: the former may not find available grooms in the proper stratum, while the latter may not be able to attract even the poorest women, aspiring to marry into better households ("Don't marry me to a ploughman," goes a common wedding song sung by in majority of rural Indian brides).


1. In a Hypergamic Marriage system the issue of equitable distribution of property is very serious issue as chain marrying women might lead to a fast and quick end to the very institution of marriage as we know it , so it is s very very dangerous issue . Without objective laws (Like less than "10" years marriage will lead to no alimony) the provisions will be misused in almost all cases and will lead to ferocious litigation with the husband with almost all cases ending before the Hon’ble Supreme Court.


2. If at all property has to be divided it must be done only after verifying that the woman has first inherited her share of property from her father. The inability of a woman to inherit of her father's wealth must not be burdened on the husband and the husband must not be forced to bear the burden of the woman who has been denied equal property rights from her own father.


3. Feminists will argue that since the dowry is what the father gives the girl then why will she get property. Then argue that if that's the case then dowry also must be included as the woman's property and must be split at divorce since dowry is given in lieu of the woman's right to her property.


4. Also the division of property must be based on objective factors like the contribution of each spouse and the faults leading to the divorce etc. Even the husband must be allowed to get half of the wife's property.


5. Property acquired during co-habitation will be considered and not during pending divorce proceedings. With average cases lasting 5 to 7 years as are the contentious scenario presently, due to judicial delays why will one give half the property acquired during separation ?


6. Framework must also be provided so that prenuptial agreements are in place so that the richer party can protect itself always otherwise richer men will be very afraid of marriage to relatively less rich women and the number of marriages will fall drastically in
India
.


The essence of this post for common spouse readers may be (read as must be) that


NO PARTY MUST BE ABLE TO PROFIT FROM THE MARRIAGE.”


This post may be kept open for prudent discussions in larger public interest.

Credits: AG



 9 Replies

Roshni B.. (For justice and dignity)     16 February 2011

@ D.Arun Kumar ji,

 

i had already replied to your post in my thread- Divorcing women to soon have property rights too

 

Since you did not acknowledge it,I'm replying again..

The law of granting equal property rights to a woman post divorce can be misued by women,who purposely marry a rich guy,then divorce him to get 50% of his property.

however,both genuine and faulty men will also find ways to avoid this,

they will transfer property in name of parent/sibling etc,much before wife files for divorce,if they get even a little idea that the marriage will perish soon.

after all,we indians are no.1 when it comes to manipulating and taking advantage of loopholes in the law.

now think of women whose husbands dont own any property,such as poor men...wot will they do?they will be dumped by husbands,with no security.

actually in india,assets of both spouses must be divided on 50:50 basis,as in USA,...so that no one gets rich at the cost of the other.

 

however,if the wife/husband was cruel/adulterous/deserter,only the property of the faulty spouse shud be divided;not the property of the genuine one.otherwise,it will be v.unjust to the genuine spuse...1st he faces abuses...then he's forced to share 50% of his assets with the person who abused him.

this will ensure justice to the wronged person,and a gud lesson to the faulty one...that marriage is not a play thing.


 

Jamai Of Law (propra)     16 February 2011

This law, if made applicable, would be for good only....

 

Simple rule is 50-50 by both to both

 

This is already there in USA and other countries....50-50 share is done bydefault (both spouses property is shred half to both)

 

Aren't marriages happening there?...yes...and they have aligned to this law and they knowingly enter into this marital knot.

 

Our prolems here is that law if it becomes retrospective then...it will open all the old graves of already dead marriages!!

Jamai Of Law (propra)     16 February 2011

Nothing is impossible in india!!!

 

 

If any top politician can change the law so that without reason his relative gets the divorce then why not the share in property? Nothing wrong in it. Actually both had vowed that both would be together for life (all assets/pleasures for both and both are for all riches/assets),

 

 

if there is situation to break apart, without need to give reason/excuse, as if it is a contract, it should be split 50-50...else give fault-reasons and win relief

 

 

But once this law is made as 50-50, then whether people part ways for any fault-reasons or not, more or less assets would get split 50-50 (because no woman breaks apart saying she as guilty ....she would always cry foul, do everything to fetch sympathy and win compensation of her 'pain and hardships')

 

 

People are just waiting for 1 such case citation!!!! ........then it will open floodgates of 50-50!!!!

Jamai Of Law (propra)     16 February 2011

At least petitioner on the grounds of IRBM,  has to shell out 50% of the assets. Respondent can be spared.

 

It should be made gender neutral!!! i.e.

 

If husband wants to walk out for no reason (wants to dump wife..in a crude language) then pay 50% and have blast!!

 

If wants wants to walk out for no reason (wants to dump husband for another handsome man..in a crude language) then pay 50% of your assets and do whatevre you want!!


(Guest)

Exactly..

Then people will think twice,before dumping the spouse for weird/odd/illogical/petty reasons....What if the 2nd marriage also breaks because of his/her fault only,and he has to again give half of his property and assets??

So,indirectly,it may help to reduce divorce rates.

Guest (Guest)     16 February 2011

Roshni B.Ji,

Most of the points you put, I totally agree except on the following point, which I quote:

"however,if the wife/husband was cruel/adulterous/deserter,only the property of the faulty spouse shud be divided;not the property of the genuine one.otherwise,it will be v.unjust to the genuine spuse...1st he faces abuses...then he's forced to share 50% of his assets with the person who abused him."

Now, you are saying that only the property of  faulty spouse should be divided. And you also carved out some grounds of fault - cruelty, desertion and adultery.  Who will decide that 'who is faulty spouse' and how?  We  both agree that the courts will decide who is a faulty spouse and similarly the court will decide this question on the basis of the evidence,  either oral or documentary, led before it.  Here, the problem comes to a wife to prove in the court of law that husband is a faulty spouse.  All the offences happen in matrimonial home, which is, in reality, the home of husband, where his mother and father, his brothers and sister-in-laws, his unmarried sisters and brothers, nephews and nieces live, who will give ample oral testimonies in the courts that always, note it, always, the erring spouse is always wife.  She does not cook, she does not discharge the responsbility of wife, daughter-in-law etc., she does not properly dress and wear shamelessly transparent dresses before elders and youngers of the family, she is not obedient to elders not affectionate to youngers, if she is employed, always keep her salary separately in her bank account, standing in the balcony - talks in the long long nights  to her ex-boy friend, keep on comparing husband with ex-boy friend and insults him etc. etc.   The wife can give only her solitary testimony in the court to refute these charges where as abundant evidence flows from husband's side to pin down the wife. The wife will face same vulnerable position as she is facing right now in Section 498-A cases, where she is facing uphill task of proving the criminal charges against the husband and relatives.  

If that is the case as husband and relatives are brazenly escaping in Section 498-A cases even though they are guilty, in matrimonial courts also they escape by proving themselves innocent and by proving that wife is always faulty spouse and avoid to share the property after divorce.

One more point, I want to highlight. 

A woman and a man are not equal before the court of law, as far as exercising the legal rights are concerned.  A woman always faces extra-ordinary difficult situation while fighting court cases.  First of all, her parents spent huge amount in marriage and now they do not want to spend any amount on her daughter to fight legal cases.  The is a social pressure on the wife and her parents, if she fights the legal cases against her husand and his relatives.  She cannot go for free legal aid as the quality of that service is wanting.  She has to compromise with  a mediocre lawyer where as the husband with the availability of the best financial resources engages the best of the best advocates available at Bar.  Haven't you read one Smt. Damayanti's postings on this forum a couple of weeks back that how she is fighting the atrocities perpetrated by her matrimonial home on one hand and at the same time  is facing innmerable problems with the legal system.

That is why, I feel if there will be clause that after the divorce under the ground of IRBM, if the errant spouse is debarred to get 50% of the property, always, only the wife will become errant spouse and never husband and 50%  of her property will be swallowed by the husband along with already digested dowry and stri-dhan.

warm regards,

Prabhakar (Advocate)

(M)9958670740

karlprabhakar@gmail.com  

1 Like

Sreenivas V (S/W)     16 February 2011

Prabhakar,

I will not accept that always women will not get proper help for law. Now a days in cases of false 498A there are some lawyers coming into picture (brokers) and framing all corrupt charges on men without taking any fee from women. The reason behind this is that force the boy into settlement (to extract more money) otherwise let the case go for years without trial being starting.

Many people either boy/girl does not know about law. Only when faced with the problems then they will go to some lawyer intially more often get cheated. Only after some time will know about it and then finds a good lawyer. Always who is at fauly either BOY/GIRL getting good lawyers, reason being as they have done mistake they will show more interest in finding a good lawyer, other party who is innocent will think they will win the case so will not spend more moeny on lawyers, as lower courts are mostly corrupt injustuce happening to innocent people here (it can be boy or girl). Even police are also involved here. Always there will be sympathy towords women, but even there is no fault from some boys always they will be trated as bad guy like others. But in case of women always they will be done favors.

Ambika (NA)     16 February 2011

I totally agree with Prabhakar Sir.

Tajobsindia (Senior Partner )     16 February 2011

Originally posted by :Roshni B..
"
@ D.Arun Kumar ji,
 
"

& Prabhakar,
Bhratrashree(s),


Thank you all readers (writers) for nice discussion going on here and continuation of Re. post as recalled by Roshni.  Roshni I do notice lots of things however they are besides the point for this post. Prabhakar you have a good valid point there.


May be more prudent writers may particiapte with their reasoning on this post.

Rgds.  

BTW: Now-a-days I am researching the exact begining of "fault" theory in practice under Family Law in India unlike the European and American model which many may like implemented here in India. Well, there has to be more rationale on 'fault" and 'no fault' theories in "Indian context" to debate with legislatures on it.
Any leads in right direction may help we all in our further views on this and Re. topic for writers to carry forward more harmonious discussions.


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