Dear Sir/Madam,
I wanted to clarify on a scenario where a testator wrote a will to his 3 sons on 1982, and he himself sold one of the property that he wrote on his will around 1984, and there was no codicil or new will written updating the will until his life time...
Now as the testator and his wife is no more, so the will which was written by him stands valid or not?
Or does it affects only the property he sold ? Is it the whole will that becomes invalid? If so can the daughters of the testator can get equal share on the property mentioned in the will ?
