UNDER HINDU RELIGION, IS IT TRUE THAT IF SISTES ARE MARRIED PRIOR TO 1987, THEY DO NOT HAVE LEGAL RIGHT TO DEMAND SHARE IN THE SELF ACQUIRED BY PARENTS AND ANCESTRAL "NOTWILLED" POROPERTIES?? viz-a-viz BROTHERS?
CLARIFICATION ON THIS ISSUE SHALL BE VERY MUCH APPRECIATED
THANKS IN ANTICIPATION
K.JAGADEESH