How can the differences be made while punishing the accused when it has not been mentioned in IPC? Does it not means ultra vires act of the State if such changes are made without a bill in the parliament? Does, Constitution allows such discrepancies in punishing the accused?
Although the view taken by the apex Court in the present case is laudable, it is sorry to say that the approach of the judiciary on granting bail to offenders committing serious crimes like murder, terrorism, etc., is not consistent at all.
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