If the golakhnath case is to challenge the 17th amendment act then it should be against union of india rather than state of punjab as only parliament have the amendment power under article 368. But the case always refers as golakhnath vs state of punjab. Why so???
Land tenure act of punjab government was already put in IX schedule so it's beyond the judicial review, hence there is no relation of punjab state in such case but we still consider them as a main party! Why so??
Please answer sir!! I'm too confused.