Upgrad
LCI Learning

Share on Facebook

Share on Twitter

Share on LinkedIn

Share on Email

Share More

chetan (Accountant)     24 June 2014

Kindly advice

Dear Sir,

We are residing in a house from the past 43 years. This house is not owned and is rented and was obtained by my father on paying some deposit that time. After so many years, can the house become ours or do we have the right to sell it as I had heard from someone that if we stay in a house for over 30 years, by default we become the owner of this house. Is there any such law??

Also, my father has 3 children. Two daughter's and i am the only son. Both the daughter's are married. So do I lawfully become the heir of the house or do all 3 have equal share in the house. As I want to sell this house and move to a bigger place but the landlord is against it. Also, this house in a gaothan area.

Please advice.

Thank you



Learning

 1 Replies

Adv Archana Deshmukh (Practicing Advocate)     24 June 2014

Are you still paying the rent? There is no such law that a tenant will become a owner just because he is staying in the rented property since more than 30 years.


Leave a reply

Your are not logged in . Please login to post replies

Click here to Login / Register  


Related Threads


Loading