Mr.A and Ms B got married on 12-06-2014. Later they both got divorce on mutual consent on 28-12-2014 in which they mentioned the date of marriage as 02-05-2013 (back date to overcome 01 year condition)
is that divorce valid?
Marriage stated to have been solemenised / contracted on 12.06.2014 and divorced by mututal consent on 28.12.2014 (after 6 months +16 days) disclosing it to be backdated i.e., 02.05.2013 to show more than one year's marriage is highly improbable, which make the post as fabricated facts for examination purposes and not a real story..
The case is stated to be during the year 2014 i.e., 8 years before now, where was the whistleblower, if someone has locus standi / problem /concerned / affected.
However, if it may be presumed to be a true fact, it is a fraud committed by the parties/petitioners upon the Court, on affidavit, hence they are liable for prosecution, if the same is surfaced.
Can you eleborate as to how you are concerned with the facts posted ???????
