If there is a property "X" owned by say Mr. "A"(Hindu). Now Mr. A would like to give the property to Mr. "B" (Hindu). So now the property "X" belongs to Mr. B.
Now, Mr.B has three sons"C","D" and "E" (all hindus). Thus, it can be seen that "C","D" and "E" can be said to be the legal heirs of property "X" after the demise of Mr"A". However, Mr. A hasdecided to give the property "X" to "C" and this clause he would liked to be introduced in the WIll and wants to make sure that after him the property "X" should go to Mr. B as mentioned in the Will.
Will the WIll be conclusive with the introduction of this statement. Will "C" be the sole owner of the property "X"... Need assistance on this particular issue.... THanks
