thanks everyone for your reply. But my mother havent got her share by her own "Earned" money.
for example i purchased a flat and i added my name but i even added my wife's name in flat that dosnt mean that my wife is the 50% owner of flat.
in my case as my mother got the ownership in a good faith she can enjoy the property but i the legal heir of her so how can she give her part of share to my brother without my consent?
And non of the documents were registered by my brother when i was seprated. So is fine to run the case on the basis of those unregisted documents?