Harish 30 August 2016
hi my father had purchased a property in 1989 from X person the sale was done through a GPA holder which was not registred.Mr Y had provided GPA to Mr X for a layout and and sold the property.Mr. Y had adopted a daughter and had return a wil say that her daughter has share in the Property but at the time of the purchase the daughter was minor. if today we need to sell the property then is the signature of Y daughter required. pls suggest.
Kumar Doab (FIN) 30 August 2016
In year 1989 in your state where property is located: was it mandatory to register the GPA?
If yes then how X could appear as bonafide representative and sign sale deed?
The GPA was for layout ( although it is not understood what exactly do you mean by it) or sale?
If Y was owner and assuming that GPA was invalid then legal heir/beneficiary/successor may agree to register and remove the defects if any.
Approach a very able counsel specializing in revenue/property/civil matters with all dcos on record for a considered opinion.
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