Selvaraanee 11 October 2018

Right to property

Mr.D allotted a vacant land by family settlement deed in 1962. Mr.D's first wife was left him in 1966 with some other person. After she left, Mr.D maintained the four female children and also had given in marriage to them. For his another wife (by registered marriage) he settled some portion of his property in 1983. In 1984, Mr.D and his wife sold jointly to Mr.& Mrs. X in 1984. Now, those female children claiming the property with new owner, as they are legal heirs to the property on the ground ancestral property. Is it valid in the name of law.

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3 Replies

Adv Deepak Joshi +917017821512 (Advocate) 11 October 2018

Dear querist,

Mr D had all right to sale this land to Mr X, Mr D sold to Mr X there is no right of female children’s.

Regards

Deepak Joshi & Associates

Djaa.legal@gmail.com

Mb/whatsapp +919456777600

TGK REDDI 11 October 2018

I'm at variance with Shri Deepak Joshi.

I invite rebuttals of the learned Members and Experts.

Sudheendra (Social worker ) 13 October 2018

family settlement deed in 1962 - what were the terms of settlement of the deed?

For his another wife (by registered marriage) he settled some portion of his property in 1983 - what were the terms of settlement of this deed? what happened to the rest of the property?

Do not indulge in litigation unless it is absolute necessity as without sufficient evidence to prove your point, you will only end up losing more than gaining