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G.L.N. Prasad (Retired employee.)     05 July 2017

Definition / requisites of a partition in hindu law

Whether the requisites for a valid partition as per Hindu law was defined /stated in any Apex Court decisions as binding ?

This query is related to one undivided son of a family,  purchasing with his money a property from an utter stranger, stating that as the co-sharer has not paid consideration to his maternal grand father in a past sale, this property was given as 1/20th  share .  There are ten more properties to Main sharer and the property alone was shown as 1/20 share of partition..  The son , after the death of his father claims that he has acquired this particular property as grand son of his maternal grandfather in the year 1951, by sharing the same with maternal grandfather's ancesters. 

Another twist in the issue, was  the primary co-sharer has registered a will showing the entire property  in his name, before two years of the sale but never mentioned about this co-sharer relative.  In the will, this property was tobe gifted to any maternity hospital, if there is no adoption.

The exact wording in sale deed which the son claim as partition deed is as follows.No.1: Primary sharer (57 year old adopted son)    2. Co- sharer ..stranger (Son- aged 18 who purchased the property in his name with his father's money,  claims that it is self acquired propertry as he secured the same as partition as legal heir of his maternal grandfather now after his father's death.

"The ancestors of  No.1 of  us has purchased  the scheduled property by paying considerations to different persons.

However the ancestors of No.1 has not paid consideration to the ancestor of No.2   Mr.X.

Now No.2 has after his minority  sought partition of the property.  After considering the facts and through mediators, as No.1 of find justice in the request ofof us No.2, now partition the below scheduled property and gives Scheule No.2  property as the share of No.2, as he is maternal grand son of Mr.X""



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 4 Replies

Kumar Doab (FIN)     05 July 2017

The said partition is registered?

G.L.N. Prasad (Retired employee.)     05 July 2017

Yes Sir.  The partition deed is registered  to the extent of only one property as sale deed but stamp duty was paid as sale.

Kumar Doab (FIN)     05 July 2017

Who is seller?

How did he acquire the property?

Is he the sole owner?

Who is buyer?

The said deed does not seem to be a partition deed. It might be a recital of something.

Is the document number of said paritition deed  mentioned or attached?

 

G.L.N. Prasad (Retired employee.)     05 July 2017

qQ1. Who is seller?

The seller is a stranger.  There is no relationship between such seller and purchaser and the title ded was purported to be a partition deed.

Q2.How did he acquire the property?

The seller a 61 year old man acquired the property as an adopted son, and from the sale deed / partiion deed it appears that his ancestors had acquired the property from several persons by paying consideration to them,  but the seller ( main Co sharer) has stated in sale deed/partition deed that his ancestors has acquired the property through purchases, but not paid consideration to the 1/20  (Rs.5,000) share of the maternal grandfather of the other co sharer.  Now after attaining the majority, the second co sharer has asked him about his land, and as the main co sharer  agreed with the second cosharer and partitioned this property alone and given the 1/20 part said to be belonging to the second co=sharer's late maternal grandfather, as consideration was not paid to his maternal grandfather, this 1/20 share in property was given as partition.

Before executing this sale deed/partition deed, he has registered a will  stating 10 other properties and bequeated entire property  shown in the sale to any maternity nursing home, in case his wife fails to adopt a son.  After two years of such registration of the will, he has given the partition/sale deed as settlement of 1/20 share of one property, as consideration not paid by his unnamed ancestors for un known lands acquired by them through purchases.

 

Q 3: Is he the sole owner?

He is adopted son and as such he is the sole owner for this scheduled property and other properties. 

Q 4 Who is buyer?

The buyer was not stated as buyer.  The buyer is 18 years old and a complete stranger to the main co=sharer.  The exact recital state that buyer/co-sharer 's maternal grand father's properties were obtained by ancestors of the sellers, and then consideration was then not paid to buyers maternal grand father.  Now that the buyer has requested for his share, the seller has given him 1/20 share of land as partition deed (Sale deed)

Q 5. The said deed does not seem to be a partition deed. It might be a recital of something.

The exact recital  as appearing was reproduced in the query.  But as the title states that it is a partition deed from  maternal grandfather's side, it is being claimed  self acquired property of the minor co sharer.  (But this sale deed is prior to 1956 wherein daughters are not having any right)

Q5 Is the document number of said paritition deed  mentioned or attached?

The partition deed is itself a title deed.  There is no mention of any acquired properties, there is no mention as to how that 1/20 share was arrived at.  The only statement states that as consideration was not by the main sharer (seller) to maternal grandfather of the other co sharer (purchaser) the 1/20 share was partitioned and given as settlement. 

The issue is not simple as it appears for the following reasons:

1.There is no relationship between the co-sharers.

2.The object of the partition is that consideration was not paid by seller's ancestors to the other co-sharer (Purchaser) maternal grandfather.

3.This statement of not paying consideration was discussed only in this partition deed and not in earlier registered will.

The thing to be decided is as to whether it is a partition deed or sale deed ?

If only the requisite/ essential conditions of a Hindu partition deed is defined or stated some where, then facts can be compared for arguing that it is not self acquired property of the purchaser, but  the purchaser has purchased it in his name with his father's money. ( Purchaser has just attained majority, illiterate and never had any occupation in his life)  Rs.5,000/- is quite a large sum in the year 1951 .  The transaction is before enactment of Hindu Succession Act 1956.

 


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