Experts, I need advise on following scenario.
Example is say Person A booked a residential property in up coming scheme. Person A paid almost 70-80% of total cost of property from bank account. However Prior to possession and execution of sale deed, person A entered into metrimonial dispute and A decided not to register property in own name. Hence Mother of A, Mrs. B paid remaining 20-30% of cost of property and later sale deed was executed in name of Mrs. B.
Later 70-80% amount paid by A was not paid back by Mrs. B hence even after 2 years of sale deed, ideally 80% of property cost is paid by A.
I want to know is that despite of Mrs. B having title in her name, does Person A has any right over the property? If yes, under which law and acts?
If Person A demands property from spouse stating that A has no property, is it a legally valid statement?
