376 (2) IPC

advocate.dma@gmail.com

It's not law. It is incorrect and over enthusiastic interpretation of "consent" by courts. I give you an example....any promise based on illegality or criminality is null and void. So as soon as the girl says that he had intimate relationship with me under the promise of marriage, and now he has backed out of promise, so that intimate act is rape!! This makes the promise itself null and void, so what is to be seen if there was any force or not. Court cannot invoke "consent under false promise of marriage" nonsense.
 
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advocate.dma@gmail.com

It's not law. It is incorrect and over enthusiastic interpretation of "consent" by courts. I give you an example....any promise based on illegality or criminality is null and void. So as soon as the girl says that he had intimate relationship with me under the promise of marriage, and now he has backed out of promise, so that intimate act is rape!! This makes the promise itself null and void, so what is to be seen if there was any force or not. Court cannot invoke "consent under false promise of marriage" nonsense.
 
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not a rape
 
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Advocate

It depends on the entire circumtances.

For example - A boy promise to marry and do a physical relationship with the girl (major) , but didnot able to fulfill his promise due to some unavoidable circumtances, is not a rape.

but in case, if he is cheated the girl and then it will be fall under Rape.  

 

 
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