Total non sense.
In our society, most of the woman and man start the s*xual life only after marriage.
How will a man know whether he is impotent before marriage?
If he himself does not know, how will his family know whether he is impotent?
And doctors clearly say that this is just a medical condition that is completely manageable.
If a man does not know about his impotency problem [if any] before marriage, how is it considered "hiding"?
Illogical.
If man has to have medical proof for his potency, should the woman has to have proof for her fertility?
There are many cases where the couple cannot have child because of woman's infertility.
How many times we have heard a man divorcing a wife for being infertile?
All these cases of impotency are filed by crooked woman guided by her ill minded lawyers, to humiliate a man.
These women think that their husbands will not even come to court if such an allegation is made.
Shameless woman.
If court wants proof for potency, what about other diseases like diabetic, heart disease etc..?
Should it not, then, every woman and man produce complete medical record before marriage along with horoscope and bio-data?