If a law/ordinance made by the parliament/president is ultra vires at the time of making of that particlur law/ordinance. But, subsequently the power of making that law is given through an amendment then would that law stand valid?
it depends on the language and intention of legislature as to whether that particular law will also apply restropectively or not.
Is there any case law on this point?
Has anything like this happened before?
i cannot point out a particular case law.
constitutional bench of SC pointed out in many case laws.
you should read V K Shukla for the subject of constitutional law
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Under which topic/Article of the Constitution would fall this type of situation?
i m sending you a site http://www.niticentral.com/2013/04/24/there-are-limits-to-constitutional-amendments-70153.html which may help you in this regard.
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