Legality of a law


If a law/ordinance made by the parliament/president is ultra vires at the time of making of that particlur law/ordinance. But, subsequently the power of making that law is given through an amendment then would that law stand valid?


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Legal Enthusiast

it depends on the language and intention of legislature as to whether that particular law will also apply restropectively or not.

 
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Is there any case law on this point?
Has anything like this happened before?

 
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Legal Enthusiast

i cannot point out a particular case law.

constitutional bench of SC pointed out in many case laws.

 
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Legal Enthusiast

you should read V K Shukla for the subject of constitutional law


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Under which topic/Article of the Constitution would fall this type of situation?


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hi,

i m sending you a site http://www.niticentral.com/2013/04/24/there-are-limits-to-constitutional-amendments-70153.html which may  help you in this regard.

kriti

 
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