Article 4(2): No such law as aforesaid shall be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
But Article 4(1) is saying that Any law referred to in article 2 or article 3 shall contain such provisions for the amendment of the First Schedule and the Fourth Schedule.
My doubt is amending the Schedule is also a Constitutional Amendment know. Then what is this contradiction between 4(1) and 4(2)? please forgive me if this is a wrong question and pls correct it
You may read Part I of the Constitution as a whole; isolated reading may not provide you the correct understanding.
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