1st agreement is not registered. stamp duty is paid in the year 1987.


I am interested to buy a commercial property where in 1st agreement between builder and first purchaser is not registered. Subsequently 2 more sales were took place with property registration and transfer of share certificate in last owners name. What would be the remedies. Shall the first owner claim his right in the property?
 
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Advocate

The matter requires professional consultation.

 
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P. Venu sir, Thats why it is discussed on this platform.
 
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P. Venu sir, Thats why it is discussed on this platform.
 
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CEO

Sir, Any subsequent sales, without the first sale deed being duly stamped and registered, are invalid. Good luck, Kishor Mehta
 
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